Was Man City's 1st goal offside?

comment by Winston (U16525)
posted 25 seconds ago
welshpoolfan (U7693)

Meant to add that the debate about controlling the ball and 'receiving' the ball are one and the same for me.

Ultimately one has to decide whether Rodri challenged for the ball or simply took advantage of Mings poor control.
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He was unable to challenge for the first ball as he was too far away. He was only then able to challenge after Mings' deliberate, but poor, recpetion/control/touch which Rodri then had every right to challenge for. This was because Mings failed to deal with it.

It is like if a striker is running in behind in a marginal offside position but the defender cuts the ball out, the attacker is allowed to immediately tackle the defender as he was not the one who received the ball. The defender was. It is exactly the same in the Mings case.

comment by meltonblue (U10617)
posted 1 hour, 29 minutes ago
"In the City/Mings case, surely Rodri gains an advantage because his very presence demands that Mings has to deal with the ball. If Rodri was not there then Mings can let the ball go through. As he knew he was behind him somewhere, he had to deal with it, not knowing if Rodri was offside or not. Advantage Rodri."

Mings could have just let the ball through though, Rodri would have judged to be offside.

The save analogy, that's explicitly accounted for in the law.


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But whats the difference.....why does a defender touching the ball start a new phase of play where an offside player can become active, whereas a GK touching the ball does not?

I know what the law is, but why is the law different in these 2 scenarios?

Seems unsatisfactory to me as a defender is expected to judge whether the nearby attacker is offside or not before deciding whether he should play the ball or not, all in the blink of an eye.

The fact that so many managers, players, pundits and viewers had no idea that what Rodri did was within the rules shows that it doesn't happen very often.

My personal view is that a player shouldn't be allowed to gain an advantage from being in an offside position but it happens so rarely that I doubt they'll be a rule change.

comment by PawlBawron (U1055)
posted 1 hour, 25 minutes ago
The fact that so many managers, players, pundits and viewers had no idea that what Rodri did was within the rules shows that it doesn't happen very often.

My personal view is that a player shouldn't be allowed to gain an advantage from being in an offside position but it happens so rarely that I doubt they'll be a rule change.
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How would you define this? In the Mings situation how long does Mings have to control the ball before Rodri is allowed to tackle?

Not reading 226 comments

Is the consensus yes or no?

comment by Stretchy Mendy (U1641)
posted 18 minutes ago
comment by PawlBawron (U1055)
posted 1 hour, 25 minutes ago
The fact that so many managers, players, pundits and viewers had no idea that what Rodri did was within the rules shows that it doesn't happen very often.

My personal view is that a player shouldn't be allowed to gain an advantage from being in an offside position but it happens so rarely that I doubt they'll be a rule change.
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How would you define this? In the Mings situation how long does Mings have to control the ball before Rodri is allowed to tackle?
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Thats a hard question to answer.

Its like when strikers sneak round the back of an unawares keeper and knock the ball into the net as I recall sometimes the goal is given and some refs disallow it for ungentlemanly conduct.

As I said earlier my initial instinct was that VAR wouldn't give it as it felt wrong and I do know that if it happened to a team I was playing for and was given I'd be going mental (up until last night anyway).

I guess that my solution would be a rule that says that if you come from an offside postition to make a tackle then its a free kick to the opposition. Then again I would say that because up until last night I thought that was the case.

comment by Devonshirespur (U6316)
posted 3 hours, 13 minutes ago
comment by meltonblue (U10617)
posted 1 hour, 29 minutes ago
"In the City/Mings case, surely Rodri gains an advantage because his very presence demands that Mings has to deal with the ball. If Rodri was not there then Mings can let the ball go through. As he knew he was behind him somewhere, he had to deal with it, not knowing if Rodri was offside or not. Advantage Rodri."

Mings could have just let the ball through though, Rodri would have judged to be offside.

The save analogy, that's explicitly accounted for in the law.


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But whats the difference.....why does a defender touching the ball start a new phase of play where an offside player can become active, whereas a GK touching the ball does not?

I know what the law is, but why is the law different in these 2 scenarios?
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Because of what’s deemed to be an unfair advantage. Standing in an offside position has always been allowed, defenders have to be aware of opposition players of that in most games. Like I said earlier, just watch Vardy, he’s a master at it.

I’m assuming that a rebound from goalkeepers save is still given offside as the defender doesn’t have any opportunity to respond if the attacker is in an offside position.

comment by Devonshirespur (U6316)
posted 3 hours, 13 minutes ago
Seems unsatisfactory to me as a defender is expected to judge whether the nearby attacker is offside or not before deciding whether he should play the ball or not, all in the blink of an eye.
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Mings was fully aware where Rodri was though, he looks directly at him before he initially plays the ball. Defenders always have to be thinking about that. The issue wasn’t Mings tried to play the ball as such, it was that he tried to control it rather than clearing his lines, which he said he should have done himself.