comment by Indiana Patel the new Bill Kenwright (U11558)
posted 8 minutes ago
Latin America refers to countries in the Americas where Romance (Latin-derived) languages are spoken. This definition, however, is not meant to include Canada, in spite of its large French-speaking population.
Latin American countries generally lie south of the United States. By extension, some writers and commentators, particularly in the United States, apply the term to the whole region south of the United States, including the non-Romance-speaking countries such as Suriname, Jamaica, and Guyana, due to similar economic, political and social histories and present-day conditions.
Before the arrival of Europeans in the late 15th and early 16th centuries, the region was home to many indigenous peoples, many of which had advanced civilizations, most notably, the Aztec, Inca and Maya. By the end of the sixteenth century large areas of what would become Latin America were colonized by European settlers, primarily from Spain, Portugal and to a lesser extent, France and the Netherlands (in Brazil).

Latin Americans are descendants of persons of European origin and are therefore caucasian(white)
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Whites are descendants from blacks but we're still white.

comment by There'sOnlyOneReds (U1721)

The human race if you want to go back far enough descended from single cell ameba.

So what's your point?

comment by Indiana Patel the new Bill Kenwright (U11558)
posted 30 minutes ago
comment by There'sOnlyOneReds (U1721)

The human race if you want to go back far enough descended from single cell ameba.

So what's your point?
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My point is regardless of the Latin American race descending from the 'white' race, as the 'white' race descended from 'black' race, it is still a race.

TOOR

Just to confirm we are on the same hymm sheet here.

1. Latin or Latino American is a race

2. South American is not a race but is someone from a geographic location.

There's a lot of semantics going on here. YET AGAIN!

Context is all important.

What it isn't at all is racism. it certainly isn't xenophobia or Suarez would have never left his home country.
What it might be argued if literally translated is verbal abuse of another race, which is exactly the same as verbal abuse of a redhead, or short or overweight person.

The real issue clearly is the context. None of us can conclusively say what was inferred by the comment or comments by either party. Therefore neither can be found guilty of anything as there should be sufficient reasonable doubt.

If the FA rules either way on this one as a single guilty party, then they need taking to court. For either player to be banned has huge significance. They should both be fined for bickering like little girls!

(sorry if I accidentally offended any little girls there, in my culture being called a little girl is a description and not meant to infer any inferiority)

Could that be described as feminist???

What it isn't at all is racism

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Here is what Negrito means.

http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/negrito

............................

You would have to be of the Peter Mandleson class of spin to convince anyone that Suarez using this to Evra is not a racist insult.

It certainly was not a term of endearment.

And trying to say this is the same as verbal abuse of a red head is typical Liverpopol fan 'bury my head in the sand' idiocy.

Best you now take your head out of the sand and face up to reality.

http://www.sportinglife.com/football/news/story_get.cgi?STORY_NAME=soccer/11/12/20/manual_200118.html&BID=165

Anyone can cut and paste a link:

http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Negro

"In Spain, Mexico and almost all of Latin-America, negr-o (note that ethnonyms, names of nationalities, etc. are generally not capitalized in Romance languages) means "black person" in colloquial situations, but it can be considered to be derogatory in other situations (as in English, "black" is often used to mean irregular or undesirable, as in "black market/mercado negr-o". However, in Spanish-speaking countries such as Argentina, Chile, and Uruguay where there are few people of African origin and appearance, negr-o (negra for females) is commonly used to refer to partners, close friends[13] or people in general independent of skin color. In Venezuela the word negr-o is similarly used, despite its large African descent population.

It is similar to the use of the word "nigg@" in urban communities in the United States. For example, one might say to a friend, "Negr-o ¿Como andas? (literally "Hey, black one, how are you doing?". In this case, the diminutive negrito is used, as a term of endearment meaning "pal", "buddy" or "friend". Negrito has come to be used to refer to a person of any ethnicity or color, and also can have a sentimental or romantic connotation similar to "sweetheart," or "dear" in English (in the Philippines, negrito was used for a local dark-skinned short person, living in the Negros islands among other places)."

So I don't think your reference is more valid as mine, as your "dictionary" definition is literal and gives no context cultural or othergwise.

comment by Vidicschin (U3584)

posted 5 hours, 36 minutes ago

TOOR

Just to confirm we are on the same hymm sheet here.

1. Latin or Latino American is a race

2. South American is not a race but is someone from a geographic location.
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Yes, that's what I said.